asked 210k views
12 votes
Keshawn thinks that the graph of a function f(x) and its inverse f -1 (x) will always intersect. Give a counterexample to disprove his statement

asked
User Naota
by
8.1k points

1 Answer

6 votes
So I rlly don’t know it but I need help like my life is falling apart on me lol
answered
User Dave McLure
by
8.6k points
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