asked 170k views
5 votes
Having Freckles (F) is dominant over not having Freckles (f). If a person that is FF has children with a person that is FF, what is the probability of their children will have Freckle

a
0%
b
25%
c
50%
d
100%

1 Answer

7 votes

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

Because there isn't a non-dominent gene.

answered
User Stobbej
by
7.8k points
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