I need help?Thank you!

Question

asked Sep 14, 2023 78.9k views

1 Answer

Konard · Answer 1 · 2023-09-19T01:48:47+0000

Given that,

$m\measuredangle1\cong m\measuredangle4$

Since, the opposite angles are equal,

$m\measuredangle4=m\measuredangle2$

From these two equations,

$m\measuredangle1\cong m\measuredangle2$

Since, the opposite angles are equal,

$m\measuredangle1\cong m\measuredangle3$

From, tese two equations,

$m\measuredangle2\cong m\measuredangle3$

Hence, Proved.