Question

Please help me help help me please help help me out

Answer 1

According to the definition of the inverse function, given a function f

`\begin{gathered} f(f^(-1)(x))=x \\ f^(-1)(f(x))=x \end{gathered}`

Therefore, regardless of function f(x), f(f^-1(x))=x, we do not even need to know the analytic form of f^-1(x). The answer is x.