asked 163k views
5 votes
Danika concludes that the following functions are inveese of each other because f(g(x))=x. Do you agree with danika explain your reasoning.f(x)=[x]g(x)=-x

asked
User JanMalte
by
8.4k points

1 Answer

2 votes

It's important to know that the rule for inverse functions is


f(g(x))=x

Where,


\begin{gathered} f(x)=\lbrack x\rbrack \\ g(x)=-x \end{gathered}

answered
User Brandon Romano
by
8.9k points
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