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​3. Did the monarch (the King) still control the House of Burgesses? 4. Why didn't the Spanish or the French have representative bodies in their colonies?

​3. Did the monarch (the King) still control the House of Burgesses? 4. Why didn't the Spanish or the French have representative bodies in their colonies?
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​3. Did the monarch (the King) still control the House of Burgesses?

4. Why didn't the Spanish or the French have representative bodies in their colonies?

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User ClassyPimp
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1 Answer

3 votes
Because they found it sin.
answered
User Hundreth
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