asked 81.0k views
10 votes
If f: R → R is defined by f(x) = x and g: R→R is defined by g(x) = x then (fog) (x) is


1 Answer

2 votes

As
R → R is defined by
f(x) = x and
g(x) = x,

So,
f and
ghave the same domain. Therefore,


(fog)(x) = f(g(x)) = f(x) = x

answered
User Bobazonski
by
8.7k points
Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.