asked 18.5k views
4 votes
Why is
lim_(x \to \infty) (x)/(ln x) equal to infinity, but
\lim_(x \to -\infty)(2^x)/(x^2) is equal to 0?

asked
User Hakuna
by
8.4k points

1 Answer

5 votes

The first limit is infinity since
x>\ln(x) for all
x>0.

The second limit is zero since
2^x converges to 0 as
x\to-\infty, while
x^2 is very large and positive.

answered
User Sinthia V
by
8.6k points
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