Final answer:
The statement is true: the domain of a function is equal to the range of its inverse function.
Step-by-step explanation:
The statement in the question is True. The domain of a function is the set of all possible input values that the function can accept, while the range of a function is the set of all possible output values. The inverse function, denoted by f^(-1)(x), will have its domain and range swapped compared to the original function f(x). Therefore, if the domain of f(x) is equal to the range of f^(-1)(x), it means that the input values of f(x) are the same as the output values of f^(-1)(x), which is true.
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