asked 113k views
3 votes
Is it possible for one country to have both an absolute advantage and a comparative advantage of another country ?

asked
User Sealz
by
8.1k points

1 Answer

1 vote

Answer: Yes, it is possible for a country to have both an absolute and comparative advantage.

Step-by-step explanation: However, this would only be possible with one good because: A comparative advantage only exists when a country can produce a good at a lower opportunity cost when compared to alternatives and other countries.

answered
User Adam LeBlanc
by
7.8k points

No related questions found

Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.