asked 85.4k views
2 votes
Let f(x)=x+2e


and denote f−1 to be the inverse function of f. Note that f(0)=2 and hence f−1(2)=0. Compute (f−1)

(2), i.e. the derivative of f−1 at 2

1 Answer

0 votes
The answer to your question is the derivative of f-1 at 2 is also equal to the derivative of mis huevos
answered
User Hgolov
by
7.9k points
Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.