asked 175k views
1 vote
Prove that (AUB) NC CAU (BNC) by explaining why z € (AUB) nC implies that a € AU (BNC).

asked
User Nikhil S
by
8.2k points

1 Answer

0 votes

Answer:

To prove that (AUB) NC CAU (BNC) and why z € (AUB) nC implies that a € AU (BNC), we can start by using the definition of set operations , specifically De Morgan's laws and set intersection.

First, let's rewrite the left-hand side of the equation using De Morgan's laws:

(AUB) NC = (A n C)' n (B n C)'

Next, we can expand (AUB) using the distributive law and simplify:

(A n C)' n (B n C)' = (A' n C') n (B' n C') = (A' n B') n C'

Now let's focus on the right-hand side of the equation:

CAU (BNC) = (C n A) U (C n B')

To prove the equivalence of the left and the right sides, we need to show that:

(A' n B') n C' = (C n A) U (C n B')

Let z € (AUB) nC, which means that z € AUB and z € C. This implies that z € A or z € B, and z € C.

If z € A and z € C, then z € A n C, which means that z € CA. Similarly, if z € B' and z € C, then z € B' n C, which means that z € C(BNC).

Therefore, z € CAU (BNC), which implies that (AUB) NC CAU (BNC).

Now to prove that z € (AUB) nC implies that a € AU (BNC):

Suppose that z € (AUB) nC. Then we know that z € C and z € A or z € B.

Without loss of generality , let's assume that z € A. This means that z € AU, which implies that a € AU for some a € A.

Now let's consider the case where z € BNC. This means that z € B' and z € C. If z € B' and a € A, then a € AU(BNC) since a can be in A or in B'(which means that it is not in B) and also in C. Thus, we have shown that z € (AUB) nC implies that a € AU(BNC).

Therefore, we have shown that (AUB) NC CAU (BNC) and why z €

Explanation:

answered
User Davivid
by
7.8k points
Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.