asked 29.7k views
2 votes
Define Ricardian Equivalence theorem. Also explain:

a) Impact of tax cut on economy and household consumption under Ricardian Equivalence
b) Does it matter if governments finance spending through debt or taxation? Justify using graphical illustration.
c) Enlist problems associated with Ricardian Equivalence.

1 Answer

7 votes

Ricardian Equivalence theorem is an economic theory that states that individuals are forward-looking and rational in their decision-making processes. The theory argues that when governments issue debt to finance spending, individuals view this debt as a future tax liability and will adjust their current consumption accordingly. Therefore, Ricardian Equivalence theory implies that changes in government spending financed by borrowing (debt) have no impact on total spending.

a) Under Ricardian Equivalence, a tax cut would not stimulate household consumption because people recognize that the tax cut will likely be offset by future tax increases. As a result, households will save the extra money that they receive from the tax cut, rather than spending it.

b) According to the Ricardian Equivalence theory, whether the government finances its spending through taxation or debt is irrelevant. In either case, individuals view the government's spending as a future tax liability and will adjust their current consumption accordingly. The Ricardian Equivalence theorem can be represented graphically by a straight-line budget constraint, which shows that changes in government borrowing do not affect the budget constraint's slope.

c) The Ricardian Equivalence theory has several limitations. First, it assumes that people are rational and forward-looking, which may not be true in practice. Second, the theory ignores the possibility of credit constraints and liquidity constraints, which could limit individuals' ability to adjust their consumption patterns in response to tax changes. Third, the theory assumes that taxes and government spending have equivalent effects on households, which may not be true if government spending is targeted towards specific groups or if taxes are targeted towards high-income earners. Finally, the Ricardian Equivalence theory assumes that government debt is issued to finance current spending, but this may not be the case if the government issues debt to finance long-term investments.

answered
User Paulrezmer
by
8.2k points
Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.