asked 118k views
2 votes
While corruption was almost nonexistent in the North, it was rampant in the South. T/F

asked
User Virmundi
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8.2k points

2 Answers

3 votes

Answer: True.

Step-by-step explanation:

The north had better civilians than the south, the south had tons of slaves and it was always more chaotic.

answered
User Dbinott
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8.1k points
3 votes

The statement "while corruption was almost nonexistent in the north, it was rampant in the south" is not entirely true. While it is true that corruption has been a significant issue in some parts of the southern United States, it is not accurate to say that it was entirely absent in the north. Corruption can be found in any region or country, regardless of its economic, social, or political status.

False

However, there have been cases where corruption has been more widespread in some southern states compared to northern ones, but this does not mean that corruption is non-existent in the north. It is essential to note that corruption is a complex issue that requires a deeper understanding of its causes and consequences, which vary from one place to another.

False. Corruption was not nonexistent in the North and rampant only in the South. Both regions experienced corruption, but the levels and forms might have varied depending on various factors such as political, economic, and social conditions.

answered
User Harat
by
8.2k points
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