It is possible to have a function f:A→B with an element b∈B so that f does not assign any element to b?

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asked Jan 1, 2024 83.7k views

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RGA · Answer 1 · 2024-01-08T04:15:17+0000

Answer:

Yes, it is possible to have a function f:A→B with an element b∈B so that f does not assign any element to b. This happens when b is not in the range of f 1.

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It is possible to have a function f:A→B with an element b∈B so that f does not assign any element to b?

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