asked 138k views
1 vote
Non-aggression pacts are pacts of peace between two

States. It was such a pact that Germany proposed to us in
1939. Could the Soviet Government have declined such a
proposal? I think that not a single peace-loving State could
decline a peace treaty with a neighboring State even
though the latter was headed by such fiends and cannibals
as Hitler and Ribbentrop.
Which of the following statements explains a logical fallacy in this excerpt?
A. Stalin restates Hitler's ideas in an altered, weakened form and then
refutes them but he doesn't address the substance of Hitler's
argument.
B. Stalin supports the claim that it was right to sign the
nonaggression pact with a rephrased statement that it was right to
sign the nonaggression pact.
C. Stalin insults anyone in his society who supports Hitler and
Ribbentrop rather than discussing these people's political ideas
openly and honestly.
D. Stalin introduces the idea that everyone signs nonaggression
pacts, suggesting that peace is the right goal merely because it is
a popular goal.

1 Answer

6 votes

Answer: B. Stalin supports the claim that it was right to sign the

nonaggression pact with a rephrased statement that it was right to

sign the nonaggression pact.

Step-by-step explanation:

Logical fallacies are misleading or erroneous arguments that, when put to the test through reasoning and more investigation, are shown to be false. They may appear stronger than they actually are owing to psychological persuasion. By Stalin, Former Premier of the Soviet Union, claiming in repetition that it was right to sign an agreement of peace between two states, he was showing a logical fallacy.

answered
User DannyMoshe
by
7.9k points
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