Question

Is this possible?

a=b
a²=ab
a²-b²=ab-b²
(a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b)
(a+b)=b
a+a=a
2a=a
2=1​

Answer 1

No. It is not possible.

Answer 2

Explanation:

No, that is not possible.

The problem lies in that
`a=b`.

Looking at your fourth line of work,
`(a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b)`

You divided by
`(a-b)`.

And because
`a=b`,
`a-b=0`

This means that when you divided by
`(a-b)` you divided by zero, which cannot happen.