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Any function has its own inverse. true or false?​

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4 votes

Answer:

false

Step-by-step explanation: Not every function has an inverse. For a function to have an inverse, it must be one-to-one (injective), meaning that each element in the domain maps to a unique element in the codomain. Additionally, it should be onto (surjective), meaning that every element in the codomain is covered by the function.

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