asked 130k views
3 votes
When the predictor variable is coded so that barx=0 and the normal error regression model (2.1) applies, are b ₀ and b₁ independent?

a. Yes
b. No
c. Not enough information
d. Depends on the sample size

asked
User Wbj
by
8.5k points

1 Answer

7 votes

Final answer:

When the mean of the predictor variable is zero, the OLS regression model coefficients b₀ and b₁ are independent of each other. Option A is correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

When the predictor (independent) variable is coded so that the mean of the predictor variable (Õ) is zero, the ordinary least squares (OLS) regression model coefficients b₀ (intercept) and b₁ (slope) are supposed to be uncorrelated, meaning they are independent of each other.

This independence arises because with Õ = 0, the sum of the cross-products of the predictor variable and the errors equals zero, which implies that b₀, which estimates the expected value of the dependent variable when the predictor is at its mean, is not influenced by the value of b₁, which estimates the change in the dependent variable per unit change in the predictor variable. Therefore, the answer to the question is (a) Yes.

answered
User Andi North
by
7.4k points
Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.