Question

( p and q) and (p and q) logically equivalent to p?

1) ( p and q) and (p and q)
2) p
3) q
4) None of the above

Answer 1

No, (p and q) and (p and q) is not logically equivalent to p.

Step-by-step explanation:

No, (p and q) and (p and q) is not logically equivalent to p. The statement (p and q) and (p and q) represents the conjunction of two statements, both of which need to be true for the entire statement to be true. On the other hand, the statement p represents a single proposition. Therefore, (p and q) and (p and q) is not the same as p.