asked 16.8k views
1 vote
A 34-year-old woman with a recent history of pelvic inflammatory disease presents with acute severe abdominal pain. Her abdomen is distended and diffusely tender to palpation. Based on these findings, you should suspect:

A) peritonitis.
B) pancreatitis.
C) appendicitis.
D) cholecystitis.

asked
User Cadenzah
by
8.9k points

1 Answer

2 votes

Final answer:

The woman is most likely experiencing peritonitis, which is inflammation of the peritoneum. It could be caused by infections associated with conditions such as appendicitis, colonic diverticulitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).

Step-by-step explanation:

Based on the symptoms described, the condition that the woman is most likely experiencing is peritonitis. Peritonitis is the inflammation of the peritoneum, which can be caused by bacterial infections associated with conditions such as appendicitis, colonic diverticulitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). In this case, the woman's recent history of pelvic inflammatory disease makes peritonitis a likely diagnosis.

answered
User Amcgregor
by
8.3k points
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