asked 74.6k views
1 vote
A 28-year-old G0 underwent a routine Pap smear six weeks ago which showed low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) with HPV associated changes. She currently has normal regular menses, no pelvic pain and no general complaints. Her previous medical history is negative. She has no previous abnormal Pap smears and no history of sexually transmitted infections. She has smoked a half-pack of cigarettes per day for 10 years and does not drink alcohol or use drugs. She has had three sexual partners in the past. On examination, she has a normal appearing cervix and normal bimanual exam. What is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?

A. Treat with antibiotics and repeat the Pap smear
B. Loop ElectroDsurgical Excision Procedure (LEEP)
C. Cold knife cone biopsy
D. Colposcopy
E. Repeat Pap smear today

asked
User Atogle
by
8.1k points

1 Answer

3 votes

Final answer:

The most appropriate next step in this patient's care is colposcopy.

Step-by-step explanation:

The most appropriate next step in this patient's care is D. Colposcopy.

Colposcopy is a diagnostic procedure that allows a healthcare provider to closely examine the cervix, vagina, and vulva for any abnormal changes. This procedure can help determine the extent of abnormal cervical cells and guide further management.

answered
User Ezequiel Moreno
by
7.8k points
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