asked 22.2k views
1 vote
A 17-year-old G1P0 woman at 37 weeks gestation presents for a routine visit. She has no complaints, but is found to have an initial blood pressure of 138/89, and 144/91 on a repeat reading. This reading is noted to be a change from her previous visits, as her blood pressures have been in the 90-100/50-60 range since initiating care at eight weeks gestation. Her urinalysis is negative for protein and her comprehensive metabolic panel and the complete blood count are normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

A. Chronic hypertension
B. Gestational hypertension
C. Mild preeclampsia
D. Severe preeclampsia
E. Normotensive

1 Answer

7 votes

Final answer:

The most likely diagnosis is gestational hypertension.

Step-by-step explanation:

The most likely diagnosis in this patient is Gestational hypertension. Gestational hypertension is defined as new-onset hypertension without proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation. In this case, the patient has an increase in blood pressure readings from her previous visits and no proteinuria. It is important to monitor her blood pressure closely and manage her condition to prevent complications.

answered
User Rahul Savani
by
8.3k points
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