asked 112k views
1 vote
G ∨ ∼T

(G ⊃ ∼H) • (∼T ⊃ A)
--------------------
∼H ∨ A
a. MP—valid.
b. CD—valid.
c. DD—valid.
d. Invalid.
e. DD—invalid.

asked
User Bonkydog
by
8.6k points

1 Answer

2 votes

Final answer:

The argument is valid because it follows the rule of inference known as Modus Ponens.

Step-by-step explanation:

To determine the validity of the given argument, we need to apply the rule of inference known as Modus Ponens. This rule states that if we have a premise of the form 'P ⊃ Q' and another premise that is the affirmative form of the antecedent 'P', then we can validly conclude the consequent 'Q'.

In the given argument, the first premise is 'G ∨ ∼T' and the second premise is '(G ⊃ ∼H) • (∼T ⊃ A)'. By applying Modus Ponens, we can derive the conclusion (∼H ∨ A).

Therefore, the reasoning in the given argument is valid, so the correct answer is a. MP - valid.

answered
User Matt Maclennan
by
9.0k points

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