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Is 32:8 is equivalent to 40:10

Is 32:8 is equivalent to 40:10
asked 83.8k views
3 votes
Is 32:8 is equivalent to 40:10

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User Jadik
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8.2k points

1 Answer

6 votes

Answer:

Explanation:

Yes they are equivalent. 10 divided by 8 is 1.25. 40/32 is 1.25. Therefor they are equivelent.

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User Dan Erez
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8.1k points
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