Is the lcm of a pair of numbers ever equal to one of the numbers? explain with an example

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asked Jun 15, 2016 122k views

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Tathagata Das · Answer 1 · 2016-06-19T05:06:56+0000

Yes, it could be equal, but it doesn't occur that often. For example, the LCM of 2 and 1 is 2. So could happen but you don't see it that a often. Only when you want to find the LCM of another number and 1.

Is the lcm of a pair of numbers ever equal to one of the numbers? explain with an example

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