asked 204k views
4 votes
The villeins were to obey the nobility but enjoyed greater freedom than serfs
true
false

asked
User Mjec
by
8.0k points

2 Answers

4 votes

I believe false if you research villein it comes up with : a feudal tenant entirely subject to a lord or manor to whom he paid dues and services in return for land

answered
User Ken Brown
by
8.3k points
4 votes
True

At the very least the villeins were granted land, even though they were subject to the lords under feudal law. They still had more power than serfs, who had almost nothing.
answered
User Sabin Chacko
by
8.2k points
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