Why is 4:6 equivalent to 2:3

Question

asked Nov 10, 2016 51.4k views

1 Answer

Jan Vladimir Mostert · Answer 1 · 2016-11-14T14:35:32+0000

I think:

Because 4:6 is a rational number: 4/6

4/6 divided by 2 = 2/3 or 2:3

They are equivalent because the larger fraction was just simplified to be smaller, but it equals the same thing

Why is 4:6 equivalent to 2:3

Please log in or register to add a comment.

Please log in or register to answer this question.

1 Answer

Please log in or register to add a comment.

No related questions found

Categories

Other Questions