Is it possible for a country with a high GDP to also have a high poverty rate? why or why not?

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asked Feb 21, 2016 167k views

2 Answers

Justin Emgarten · Answer 1 · 2016-02-24T18:54:03+0000

Yes, this is possible although it's more likely that a country with a low GDP would have a high poverty rate. GDP is a total measure out output/production and doesn't take into account individual wealth.

Is it possible for a country with a high GDP to also have a high poverty rate? why or why not?

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