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Is 40(2x-16y) equivalent to 42x-56y

Is 40(2x-16y) equivalent to 42x-56y
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Is 40(2x-16y) equivalent to 42x-56y

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User Simusid
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No, because the Distributive Property shows that 40(2x-16y) = 80x-640y, which does not equal 42x-56y
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User Khaja Md Sher E Alam
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