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Why does ln1 equal 0?

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User Sidriel
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1 Answer

3 votes
Logarithms are powers of the base of the logs. If we consider logs to base 10, we find:
log_(10) 1=0
This is because

10^(0)=1
Similarly for natural logs, where the base is the exponential number e, we have

e^(0)=1
This ensures that we have no problems with expressions such as the following:

ln\ ((60)/(1))=ln\ 60-ln\ 1=ln\ 60-0=ln\ 60
answered
User Vieux
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