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In Roman times, if one had to kill oneself, and one was a real man, one did it with a dagger. What does Juliet's death demonstrate? an inversion of the masculine/feminine n…
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In Roman times, if one had to kill oneself, and one was a real man, one did it with a dagger. What does Juliet's death demonstrate? an inversion of the masculine/feminine n…
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Jan 21, 2017
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In Roman times, if one had to kill oneself, and one was a real man, one did it with a dagger. What does Juliet's death demonstrate?
an inversion of the masculine/feminine normative
disparate points on the continuum of "normative adult life"
the paradox that one must have lived to die
Friar Laurence's failure to instill gender norms in Juliet
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Answer: Inversion of the masculine\feminine normative
Step-by-step explanation:
Zey
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Jan 23, 2017
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The correct answer for the question that is being presented above is this one: "an inversion of the masculine/feminine normative." At the end of the story she does kill herself with a dagger, so it would be an inversion of the masculine/feminine normative.
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Jan 26, 2017
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