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Why does the finding that 4-month-old infants have intermodal perception challenge piaget's theory?

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It is challanged because Intermodal perception refers to the perception of something or occasion that makes data accessible to at least two sensory systems at the same time. Most things and occasions are multimodal in that they can be experienced through different sense modalities and Piaget presented that young infants do not possess the ability to coordinate sensory information from multiple sources.

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User Harpal
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