Question

Which statement could be used to explain why f(x) = 2x – 3 has an inverse relation that is a function?

Answer 1

f(x) is a one to one function

Explanation:

Answer 2

Since f(x) has a domain and range of all real numbers, it's inverse also has a domain and range of all real numbers.  Furthermore since every value pair of (x,y) for f(x) is unique, its inverse will also have the inverse unique value pairs (y,x).