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Why does wiesel refer to indifference as tempting

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Why does wiesel refer to indifference as tempting

asked Mar 4, 2018 134k views

2 votes

Why does wiesel refer to indifference as tempting

English
high-school

by Repose

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2 Answers

6 votes

because it can be easy to just ignore everything but that is just inhuman

Anna Dolbina answered Mar 6, 2018

by Anna Dolbina

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4 votes

To show that being indifferent to suffering is easy.

ClassicThunder answered Mar 10, 2018

by ClassicThunder

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