asked 55.9k views
4 votes
HELP PLEASE ASAP!

1. A man is convicted of a crime but did not have an attorney to represent him at his trial. Under what circumstances would this be unconstitutional according to Gideon v. Wainwright?

If the man was unable to afford an attorney and the court refused to provide one
If the man chose to not use his right to an attorney and represent himself
If the man was insane and no attorney would choose to represent him
If the man was unaware that he had the right to be represented by an attorney

2 Answers

2 votes
I thinks it's a because the amendments of the us say everyone has the right to be provided a lawyer
answered
User DrBeza
by
7.9k points
2 votes

Answer: A

Step-by-step explanation:

answered
User Nikita Nemkin
by
7.5k points
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