asked 193k views
4 votes
By 1700 slavery existed

a.
only in the southern colonies.
b.
in all the southern and middle colonies.
c.
only in royal colonies, rather than in company or proprietary colonies.
d.
in all the colonies.

asked
User RoboAlex
by
8.1k points

2 Answers

3 votes
All the Colony's so its D
answered
User Travis Weber
by
8.2k points
3 votes
d. because at the time slavery exsisted in every colony.
answered
User Adriano Campos
by
8.3k points
Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.