Why do you think certain parts of the South had large numbers of slaves while other parts did not?

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asked Nov 16, 2018 52.1k views

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Marcelus Trojahn · Answer 1 · 2018-11-21T02:33:05+0000

It could be because some parts of the south had more farms, while others did not. Some areas could be more populated or filled with richer people (which would allow the rich to buy and own slaves)

Why do you think certain parts of the South had large numbers of slaves while other parts did not?

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