asked 102k views
3 votes
What is p−m ÷ pn equal to?

A. p−m + n
B. p−m ⋅ n
C. p−m − n
D. p−m ÷ n

asked
User Arnaud H
by
7.3k points

2 Answers

2 votes

Final answer:

The expression p−m ÷ pn simplifies to
p^(-m-n). which means that the answer is C. p−m − n.

Step-by-step explanation:

A mathematical expression is a combination of numbers, symbols, and operators that represents a mathematical statement

The expression p−m ÷ pn can be simplified using the rules of exponents.

When dividing two numbers with the same base, you subtract the exponents.

In this case, p^n is the same as p to the power of n.

Therefore, p−m ÷ pn simplifies to
p^(-m-n).

This means that the answer is option C, p−m − n.

answered
User Kung Fu Ninja
by
7.8k points
6 votes

Answer:

p²n - pnm is the answer

answered
User Zind
by
7.6k points

Related questions

asked Sep 16, 2018 133k views
Mark Jeronimus asked Sep 16, 2018
by Mark Jeronimus
8.6k points
2 answers
4 votes
133k views
2 answers
2 votes
8.3k views
Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.