asked 199k views
12 votes
Why did the United States interfere in Iran in the 1950s? What was the result of their interference?

1 Answer

3 votes

Answer:

Because Iran has oil and sells it to U.S. Iran minister doesn't want to do business with U.S. anymore.

Step-by-step explanation:

The results were the U.S. would sponsor in Iran to replace existing gov't to be more western friendly.

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User Dex Dave
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