asked 77.5k views
5 votes
Why does no gas obey the ideal gas law at 0.1 kelvin

asked
User Wolfv
by
7.6k points

1 Answer

4 votes
The ideal gas law can be derived from the kinetic theory of gases and relies on the assumptions that (1) the gas consists of a large number of molecules, which are in random motion and obey Newton's laws of motion; (2) the volume of the molecules is negligibly small compared to the volume occupied by the gas; and (3) no forces act on the molecules except during elastic collisions of negligible duration.
answered
User KingTim
by
8.9k points

No related questions found

Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.