Register

Decreasing 40 to 20 is the same as decreasing 40 by one-half of . So, it is a 50% decrease.

Decreasing 40 to 20 is the same as decreasing 40 by one-half of . So, it is a 50% decrease.
asked 201k views
5 votes
Decreasing 40 to 20 is the same as decreasing 40 by one-half of . So, it is a 50% decrease.

asked
User Shin Yu Wu
by
8.1k points

1 Answer

6 votes
Yes it is also a 50% decrease.

answered
User Rizwan Atta
by
8.6k points
← Prev Question Next Question →

No related questions found

Ask a Question
Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.

Categories

Other Questions

How do you can you solve this problem 37 + y = 87; y =
How do you estimate of 4 5/8 X 1/3
A bathtub is being filled with water. After 3 minutes 4/5 of the tub is full. Assuming the rate is constant, how much longer will it take to fill the tub?
Link Copied!