asked 29.4k views
2 votes
If 1 pint is equal to 2 cups, then 5 pints would equal ___ cups.

2 Answers

7 votes

Answer:

10

Explanation:

i multiplied the 5 pints by the 2 cups, which in turn gave me 10 cups

answered
User Doug Blank
by
8.1k points
2 votes
I think it's probably 10.....
answered
User Ostemar
by
7.5k points

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