asked 148k views
3 votes
The division law of exponents says that if b is a nonzero number and n and m are any numbers

The division law of exponents says that if b is a nonzero number and n and m are any-example-1
asked
User Marwijn
by
8.6k points

2 Answers

1 vote

false

Explanation

answered
User Dsmith
by
7.5k points
4 votes
For this case we have the following expression:
(b ^ n) / (b ^ m)
We have to:
b: number other than zero
m, n: any number
By properties of exponents we have:
(b ^ n) / (b ^ m) = b ^ (n-m)
Therefore, we have that the statement shown is false.
Answer:
False
answered
User Eldhose M Babu
by
8.3k points

No related questions found

Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.