Why does a cone us pi r^2 in its formula instead of B

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asked Jul 2, 2019 183k views

1 Answer

Mike Kovetsky · Answer 1 · 2019-07-08T04:25:37+0000

Because B is the area of the base of the cone. Since the base is a circle, area of the base= pi x r^2.

Idk if this is what you're looking for but here :/

Why does a cone us pi r^2 in its formula instead of B

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