Question

John says that if one side of an inequality is 0, you don't have to reverse the inequality symbol when you multiply or divide both sides by a negative number. Complete the example that disproves John's statement.

If you divide both sides of −3z ≥ 0 by −3, you get z ≥

Can anyone help ? :)

Answer 1

^agreed . The 0 does not matter what so ever and yes be sure to always flip the inequality!

Answer 2

It doesn't matter if there is 0, you still flip the inequality symbol.
-3z ≥ 0
z ≤ 0