Expression is not equivalent to (1 − sin2(x)) tan(-x).

Question

asked Jun 2, 2019 200k views

2 Answers

asked Mar 13, 2024 219k views

Jody Hagins asked Mar 13, 2024

7.4k points

1 answer

2 votes

219k views

asked Jan 16, 2024 126k views

Yuuuu asked Jan 16, 2024

by Yuuuu

7.7k points

1 answer

0 votes

126k views

asked Apr 6, 2024 81.2k views

Caesar Kabalan asked Apr 6, 2024

7.8k points

1 answer

0 votes

81.2k views

Mirko Akov · Answer 1 · 2019-06-06T04:57:12+0000

Answer:

If you are looking for an expression that is no equivalent, then:

(cos^2(x) - 1) cot(-x)

Explanation:

The expression (cos^2(x) - 1) cot(-x) is not equivalent to (1 − sin2(x)) tan(-x).