If the opposite of g(x) is –g(x), then –g(x) =

asked Jul 25, 2019 128k views

1 vote

by Itako

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4 votes

since they are opposites they are gonna equal each other g(x)

Etusm answered Jul 28, 2019

by Etusm

8.7k points

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5 votes

-g(x) = g(x) this statement is true because of the commutative property

hope this helps

Mahamadou answered Jul 31, 2019

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