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Tanya claims if you roll a fair number cube four times, you are more likely to get 2, 3, 1, 6 than 6, 6, 6, 6. Is she correct? Fully explain your answer.

asked
User Tammen
by
7.8k points

2 Answers

4 votes

Answer:

Answer:

Tanya is incorrect.

Step-by-step explanation:

Each time you roll the dice, you have a 1 in 6 shot in getting any number. Rolling a 6 does not lower the odds of rolling another 6. Therefore the odds of both of these are (1/6)^4.

This does however change if you are allowed to roll these numbers in any order. In that case, the first batch would be easier

answered
User Marcus Johnson
by
8.5k points
2 votes

Answer:

Tanya is incorrect.

Explanation:

Each time you roll the dice, you have a 1 in 6 shot in getting any number. Rolling a 6 does not lower the odds of rolling another 6. Therefore the odds of both of these are (1/6)^4.

This does however change if you are allowed to roll these numbers in any order. In that case, the first batch would be easier.

answered
User Manoj Tolagekar
by
8.3k points

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