Question

Are the expressions 3{y+1} and 3y+3 equivalent for any value? explain

Answer 1

yes

Explanation:

It is because you need to times in the answer

3(y+1) mutiply it in!

3times y and 3 times 1

it equals to 3y+3

Answer 2

Yes

Explanation:

The distributive property states that a(b+c) = ab+ac. Working out the first equation, we see that 3(y+1) is 3y+3. Because the second equation is 3y+3, they are also equal.